Bible Question:

Does Deuteronomy 24:ane-4 say a person can marry their ex-spouse once more?

Bible Answer:

Deuteronomy 24:ane-4 is about divorce and remarriage. The passage tells u.s.a. that a homo or woman cannot return to a old spouse and marry him or her if the former spouse had subsequently married another person. Here is the passage,

When a human takes a married woman and marries her, and information technology happens that she finds no favor in his eyes considering he has found some indecency in her, and he writes her a document of divorce and puts it in her hand and sends her out from his firm, and she leaves his house and goes and becomes some other man'swife , and if the latter husband turns against her and writes her a document of divorce and puts information technology in her mitt and sends her out of his house, or if the latter husband dies who took her to be his married woman, and then her former married man who sent her away is non allowed to take her again to exist his wife, since she has been defiled; for that is an anathema earlier the LORD, and you shall not bring sin on the land which the LORD your God gives y'all as an inheritance. Deuteronomy 24:1-4 (NASB)

Does the Bible Say I Can Remarry My Ex-Spouse

Showtime Husband Divorces His Wife

God gave the Israelites this instruction through the prophet Moses. In this passage, Moses gave the Israelites an analogy and then ended with a biblical principle. The illustration helps united states of america empathize the principle. Moses starts by painting the flick of a husband divorcing his wife for some reason. Moses does not clearly explain the reason for the divorce apparently because his purpose was not to provide a listing of God-approved reasons for divorce. It is clear from Malachi 2:16 that God hates divorce. In Matthew xix:eight Jesus tells us that when God permits divorce, it is only because we accept hard hearts. The simply reason that Moses gives united states for the divorce is that the hubby institute some "indecency." The Hebrew word for indecency is עֶרְוָה or erwa. The general consensus of Bible translators is that the meaning of the word is unknown since they translate the words equally "something wrong," "something indecent," "something offensive," "something improper" and "some indecency."

All the same, it should be noted that the word usually refers to nakedness or genitals. Out of the 54 times the word appears in the Former Testament, it occurs 32 times in Leviticus 18. Since Leviticus 18 is predominately about sexual sins, this would suggest that the indecency is related to some sexual issue. In Matthew 5:32 and nineteen:four-9, Jesus teaches us that divorce is permitted for porneia or various sexual sins. This would seem to suggest that the indecency was some form of sexual immorality.

Deuteronomy 22:twenty-22 eliminates that meaning of indecency.

But if the matter is truthful, that evidence of virginity was not found in the immature adult female, so they shall bring out the young woman to the door of her begetter's house, andthe men of her city shall stone her to death with stones, considering she hasdone an outrageous thing in Israel by whoring in her male parent's business firm.So you shall purge the evil from your midst. Deuteronomy 22:20-22 (NASB)

The first part of the passage is about premarital sex, and the last part of the passage is almost adultery. In both situations the penalty of the guilty individuals was expiry. This eliminates sexual immorality as being the crusade of the indecency. In the Jewish civilisation premarital sexual activity was tantamount to union, which explains the charge of adultery. This passage helps us understand that the indecency cannot refer to some sexual sin. Instead, it refers to some unknown simply serious offense.

Earl Due south. Kalland makes this annotate about the word indecency.

Something less than infidelity must exist meant here, since the punishment for adultery is death ([Deuteronomy] 22:22-27; Lev. 20:10). Existence guilty of "something indecent," however, is more than than petty.[1]

It is important to note that Moses' purpose was not to give us a God-approved justification for divorce. His purpose was to give usa an analogy to help us understand a biblical principle. Therefore, let united states proceed.

Second Husband Divorces Her or Dies

Adjacent we are told that she decided to marry another human being. Moses does non command her to remarry. The purpose of this illustration is not to teach that she should remarry or not ally. The illustration just states that she marries another human being. But her new husband either 1) becomes unhappy with her for some reason and legally divorces her or 2) dies. Either by existence divorced or her husband's decease, she is legally able to ally from a secular perspective.

Tin the Wife Marry Her Former Husband Again?

Moses has created a hypothetical state of affairs and is ready to teach united states of america a principle. Now he explains that her outset hubby cannot take her back. That is, he cannot remarry her. Why? The only reason given in Scripture that would forbid her from remarrying her ex-spouse is that the first divorce was not for reasons of immorality. We say the showtime divorce was not a biblical divorce since neither the married man or the ex-married woman had the correct to remarry.  The study Porneia Definition — What is the meaning of the Greek give-and-take porneia in the Bible? explains the various forms of sexual activities that are immoral. Consequently, since the first divorce was not a biblical divorce, she committed adultery past marrying the second man. Remember that in Matthew 5:32 and nineteen:4-9, Jesus teaches that adultery occurs when a spouse divorces for any reason other than sexual immorality.

This is the correct estimation since Moses says that "she has been defiled; for that is an abomination earlier the LORD." The first divorce was acceptable, merely she did non have the right to remarry anyone. Both the adult female and her ex-spouse would have to remain unmarried. Merely since she remarried, she committed adultery and could not go dorsum to the offset spouse. Jeremiah 3:i teaches us that a spouse could non remarry their commencement spouse after marrying someone else.

Determination:

Deuteronomy 24:1-four is an important passage since many couples have divorced and then wanted to remarry. The principle that is taught in this passage is that the start couple can remarry merely if both individuals remained unmarried since the divorce. The reason is that Deuteronomy describes an unbiblical divorce. For more information nearly the various weather condition for biblical divorce and remarriage, please visit the study "Biblical Divorce and Remarriage."

References:

1.  Earl Southward. Kalland. Deuteronomy. The Expositor's Bible Commentary. Zondervan Publishing. 1992. vol. 3. p. 145.

Suggested Links:

Can I marry my first married man again with God's approving?
Porneia Definition — What is the meaning of the Greek word porneia in the Bible?
Biblical Divorce and Remarriage
Can I remarry if I was confronting my husband'due south divorce?
Should I divorce my second spouse to end my adultery?
Can someone exist guilty of infidelity if divorced against their will?
If you are divorced and remarry, are yous living in adultery?
What does God say about a person marrying someone who has been divorced?